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Posts Tagged ‘Mobius function’

On the Möbius function

April 11, 2015 by Sabyasachi Mukherjee. 7 comments

The Möbius function is a rather useful one, especially when dealing with multiplicative functions. But first of all, a few definitions are in order.

Definition 1: Let ω(n) be the number of distinct prime divisors of n.

Definition 2: The Möbius function, μ(n) is defined as (1)ω(n) if n is square-free and 0 otherwise. (A number n is square-free if there is no prime p such that p2 divides n.)

It may be a good idea to compute the following: ω(n) and μ(n) for n=64,12,17,1 to get an idea of what’s going on.

A Möbius function is an arithmetic function, i.e. a function from N to C. Can you think of some other arithmetic functions?

Definition 3:  If f(n) is an arithmetic function not identically zero such that f(m)f(n)=f(mn) for every pair of positive integers m,n satisfying (m,n)=1, then f(n) is multiplicative.

Theorem 0: μ(n) is a multiplicative function.

Proof: The proof is left to the reader.

Theorem 1: If f(n) is a multiplicative function, so is d|nf(d).

Before we jump to the proof, let us be clear on the notation. For n=12, d|nf(d)=f(1)+f(2)+f(3)+f(4)+f(6)+f(12) i.e. the sum taken over the divisors of n.

Proof: Consider the sets A={d:0<d,d|n} and B={d1d2:d1|m1,d2|m2,(m1,m2)=1,m1m2=n}.

(Note that such m1,m2 exist. Take m1=1,m2=n).

Now take dA. Then 1d divides 1n which means that dB and so AB.

Now take sB. So s is of the form d1d2 where d1|m1 and d2|m2 such that (m1,m2)=1 with their product n. So, s divides m and hence BA. From these, we infer that A=B.

Now, suppose that (m,n)=1. Then F(mn)=d|mnf(d)=d1|m,d2|n,d1d2=mnf(d1d2)=d1|md2|nf(d1d2)

So, F(mn)=d1|md2|nf(d1)f(d2)(since f is multiplicative)=d1|mf(d1)d2|nf(d2).

Now with this theorem in hand, let us a prove a few more theorems.

 Theorem 2: d|nμ(d) is 0 if n>1 and 1 if n=1.

Proof: The case n=1 is trivial.

Suppose that n>1.

Since μ(n) is multiplicative, so is F(n)=d|nμ(d). Now let us recall that n>1 can be written as a product of primes, say n=paiipakk. So, we can write F(n)=F(pa11)F(pakk).

As ai1, F(paii)=0 (using the definition of μ.)That means F(n)=0. The desired conclusion now follows from this discussion.

Before we now move on to a theorem which shows a connection between the Euler’s φfunction and the Möbius function, let us state a really important theorem, also known as the Möbius Inversion formula.

Theorem 3: If F(n)=d|nf(d) for every positive integer n, then f(n)=d|nμ(d)F(nd).

Proof:  We will flesh this proof in somewhat lesser detail because we have developed most of the techniques related to his proof.

Note that d|nμ(d)F(nd)

=d|nμ(d)k|(n/d)f(k)=dk|nμ(d)f(k)=dk|nμ(k)f(d).

Can the reader now complete the proof? (Hint: Use Theorem 2).

Theorem 4: φ(n)=nd|nμ(d)d.

Proof:  To write the proof, we use a lemma.

Lemma: d|nφ(d)=n.

Proof of the lemma: Note that for n=1, this is true. Suppose that n>1. Then n=pa11pakk for some primes p1,,pk. As φ(n) is multiplicative, so is F(n)=d|nφ(d)

That means F(n)=ki=1F(paii). A quick calculation reveals that F(paii)=paii which gives F(n)=n.

We can now use this lemma and  the Möbius Inversion formula to finish off the proof.

Here as some other problems on multiplicative functions.

Problem 1:  1φ(n)=1nd|nμ(d)2φ(d).

 

Problem 2:  For each positive integer n, μ(n)μ(n+1)μ(n+2)μ(n+3)=0.

 

Problem 3: d|n|μ(d)|=2ω(n).