Posts Tagged ‘Mobius function’
On the Möbius function
The Möbius function is a rather useful one, especially when dealing with multiplicative functions. But first of all, a few definitions are in order.
Definition 1: Let ω(n) be the number of distinct prime divisors of n.
Definition 2: The Möbius function, μ(n) is defined as (−1)ω(n) if n is square-free and 0 otherwise. (A number n is square-free if there is no prime p such that p2 divides n.)
It may be a good idea to compute the following: ω(n) and μ(n) for n=64,12,17,1 to get an idea of what’s going on.
A Möbius function is an arithmetic function, i.e. a function from N to C. Can you think of some other arithmetic functions?
Definition 3: If f(n) is an arithmetic function not identically zero such that f(m)f(n)=f(mn) for every pair of positive integers m,n satisfying (m,n)=1, then f(n) is multiplicative.
Theorem 0: μ(n) is a multiplicative function.
Proof: The proof is left to the reader.
Theorem 1: If f(n) is a multiplicative function, so is ∑d|nf(d).
Before we jump to the proof, let us be clear on the notation. For n=12, ∑d|nf(d)=f(1)+f(2)+f(3)+f(4)+f(6)+f(12) i.e. the sum taken over the divisors of n.
Proof: Consider the sets A={d:0<d,d|n} and B={d1d2:d1|m1,d2|m2,(m1,m2)=1,m1m2=n}.
(Note that such m1,m2 exist. Take m1=1,m2=n).
Now take d∈A. Then 1⋅d divides 1⋅n which means that d∈B and so A⊂B.
Now take s∈B. So s is of the form d1d2 where d1|m1 and d2|m2 such that (m1,m2)=1 with their product n. So, s divides m and hence B⊂A. From these, we infer that A=B.
Now, suppose that (m,n)=1. Then F(mn)=∑d|mnf(d)=∑d1|m,d2|n,d1d2=mnf(d1d2)=∑d1|m∑d2|nf(d1d2)
So, F(mn)=∑d1|m∑d2|nf(d1)f(d2)(since f is multiplicative)=∑d1|mf(d1)∑d2|nf(d2).
Now with this theorem in hand, let us a prove a few more theorems.
Theorem 2: ∑d|nμ(d) is 0 if n>1 and 1 if n=1.
Proof: The case n=1 is trivial.
Suppose that n>1.
Since μ(n) is multiplicative, so is F(n)=∑d|nμ(d). Now let us recall that n>1 can be written as a product of primes, say n=paii…pakk. So, we can write F(n)=F(pa11)…F(pakk).
As ai≥1, F(paii)=0 (using the definition of μ.)That means F(n)=0. The desired conclusion now follows from this discussion.
Before we now move on to a theorem which shows a connection between the Euler’s φ−function and the Möbius function, let us state a really important theorem, also known as the Möbius Inversion formula.
Theorem 3: If F(n)=∑d|nf(d) for every positive integer n, then f(n)=∑d|nμ(d)F(nd).
Proof: We will flesh this proof in somewhat lesser detail because we have developed most of the techniques related to his proof.
Note that ∑d|nμ(d)F(nd)
=∑d|nμ(d)∑k|(n/d)f(k)=∑dk|nμ(d)f(k)=∑dk|nμ(k)f(d).
Can the reader now complete the proof? (Hint: Use Theorem 2).
Theorem 4: φ(n)=n∑d|nμ(d)d.
Proof: To write the proof, we use a lemma.
Lemma: ∑d|nφ(d)=n.
Proof of the lemma: Note that for n=1, this is true. Suppose that n>1. Then n=pa11…pakk for some primes p1,…,pk. As φ(n) is multiplicative, so is F(n)=∑d|nφ(d)
That means F(n)=k∏i=1F(paii). A quick calculation reveals that F(paii)=paii which gives F(n)=n.
We can now use this lemma and the Möbius Inversion formula to finish off the proof.
Here as some other problems on multiplicative functions.
Problem 1: 1φ(n)=1n∑d|nμ(d)2φ(d).
Problem 2: For each positive integer n, μ(n)μ(n+1)μ(n+2)μ(n+3)=0.
Problem 3: ∑d|n|μ(d)|=2ω(n).